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Paul Cavezza
23-06-2012, 04:08 PM
Hi all,

Why and when Qe1? In what situations is it good / bad? When black plays a fianchetto? Is the idea e4, f4, g4, Qh4?! I'm baffled.

For example here in Korchnoi - Reshevsky 1968:

http://www.chessgames.com/perl/chessgame?gid=1081819

White plays Qe1, then black cramps himself with Nbd7 and instead of e5 immediately he plays Qe2!

ps. Obviously I'm aware it's to play e4, but why not Re1?

Zwischenzug
23-06-2012, 04:41 PM
Perhaps it is because eventually the queen has to come out and can only do so via the a5-e1 diagonal?

Paul Cavezza
23-06-2012, 04:50 PM
But then he goes straight back to the other diagonal :D
I guess it's simply because the Rook is good on f1 and he wants to play e4.

Also- can anyone explain Bg4 in that game? :)

cheers

jammo
23-06-2012, 06:43 PM
But then he goes straight back to the other diagonal :D
I guess it's simply because the Rook is good on f1 and he wants to play e4.

Also- can anyone explain Bg4 in that game? :)

cheers

Correct. R is better on f1. Bg4 is just putting the B on a better square.

Paul Cavezza
24-06-2012, 09:58 AM
Thanks Jammo. Great game that one!

I guess the rook only comes to e1 against the French setup when white's played e4-e5

pax
26-06-2012, 12:32 AM
The position in that game at move 23 says much IMO.

Desmond
26-06-2012, 07:25 AM
Thanks Jammo. Great game that one!

I guess the rook only comes to e1 against the French setup when white's played e4-e5The point is that in the KIA French a piece attack is genuinely dangerous and will usually be decisive if black doesn't get counterplay going. White will often throw his h-pawn down the board but this is also to vacate the h2 square for a knight to go f1-h2-g4-(x)h6. Vacating f1 is also necessary for that manouver. The f-pawn advance is not needed for these plans.