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View Full Version : Is this a correct Blitz game?



Jesper Norgaard
15-07-2009, 08:33 PM
There are some issues of about making/completing a move that is apparently implicit in the Laws of Chess, and only the most experienced arbiters knows the difference. Many players suggest that you can't make a move before you opponent has made his move and pressed his clock, however this is neither explicitly specified in the Laws nor denied. Instead, "a player is always allowed to press his clock" e.g. implicitly implying that perhaps the opponent started to move or finshed his move, before you press the clock, but you should always be allowed to do that.

The fine difference between making a move and completing a move is therefore that the first talks only about the piece(s) movement, while the second is all that plus pressing of the clock. Many local translations of the FIDE Laws of Chess (in non-English) do not distinguish in an understandable way about this, it got "lost in translation".

To test whether I have understood this correctly, e.g. you can move after the opponent made his move (piece released on the square) but before he presses his clock, a Blitz game could in fact run like this (a Sicilian) between players A and B. Each step (steps 1 to 10) are completed before next step is started:

1. White A moves 1.e4
2. Black B moves 1...c5
3. White A presses his clock for 1.e4
4. White A moves 2.Nf3
5. Black B presses his clock for 1...c5
6. Black B moves 2...d6
7. White A presses his clock for 2.Nf3
8. White A moves 3.d4
9. Black B presses his clock for 2...d6
10.Black B moves 3...cxd4

etc.

It looks quite chaotic, but it is most likely what bullet games (1 min. games) between experienced bullet players will look like. In fact, contrary to what Irina Krush argumented, none of the players are really cheating knowingly or unknowingly, and both players are saving execution time so that both players can finish more moves in a fixed amount of time than if they would have to wait for the other player to press the clock before moving. I think in her argument white would always lose on time when they were "cheating" like this. In fact, White only has a minuscule loss in the first move (1.e4) because he can't make that move in his opponents time so to say, but from then on terms are equal.

Opinions? Is my interpretation correct?

Kevin Bonham
15-07-2009, 08:57 PM
As far as I can tell, yes.

The made/completed distinction is very important and does establish that once the opponent has released his hand from a piece, you can make your move in reply before the clock is pressed.

This sort of thing quite often happens (probably more often than your scenario with a player pressing for a previous move after replying):

A moves
B replies before A has pressed his clock.
A presses the clock.
B immediately presses the clock back.
Now it is A's move and his clock is running as normal.

Bill Gletsos
15-07-2009, 09:11 PM
As far as I can tell, yes.

The made/completed distinction is very important and does establish that once the opponent has released his hand from a piece, you can make your move in reply before the clock is pressed.

This sort of thing quite often happens (probably more often than your scenario with a player pressing for a previous move after replying):

A moves
B replies before A has pressed his clock.
A presses the clock.
B immediately presses the clock back.
Now it is A's move and his clock is running as normal.This is correct.

I explained this in detail in a post here (http://www.chesschat.org/showpost.php?p=198145&postcount=5).