We had four amusing situations in the Blitz tourney last Thursday. They all concerned the definition of the illegal move. So what is an illegal move in fact according to FIDE? Upon revising the Laws of Chess again today it is finally dawning on me why I have had problems understanding this concept before. Apparently I thought that an illegal move was a move that was not following all constraints of FIDE Laws of Chess. This is wrong. In fact there are many different actions/moves that are discouraged or forbidden without falling into the category 'illegal move'.
The laws instead defines in 4.6 "The move is called legal when all the relevant requirements of article 3 has been fulfilled". It follows implicitly that any move that does not comply with all aspects of article 3, is illegal. Also 1.2 if a player leaves his king in check, it is also an illegal move (actually perhaps the most common illegal move) should be considered but is in fact covered in 3.9 "No piece can be moved that will either expose the king of the same colour to check or leave that king in check".
Case A
A player in the Blitz tourney had not noticed his King and Queen were reversed in the initial position of a game. The game went on 5 moves before this was discovered and therefore according to A4(a) had to be finished as started. The problem was that the player with reversed king and queen intended to castle. If I understand it correctly, the opponent claimed an illegal move as per this rule that ends "In the case of reverse king and queen placement castling is not allowed". Note that castling is not allowed, but is not defined as an illegal move since it is not considered illegal explicitly and is not covered by article 3. It is clear that castling was intended as defined in 3.8 as "moving king and either rook of the same colour along the player's first rank, counting as a single move and executed as follows: the king is transferred from its original square two squares towards the rook on its original square, then that rook is transferred to the square the king has just crossed."
So for White 0-0 means Ke1-g1 and Rh1-f1 and for 0-0-0 means Ke1-c1 and Ra1-d1 are legal castling moves. Ke1-d1 and Ra1-e1 would be an illegal castling move because it did not comply with "two squares towards the rook of its original square" and that goes for Ke1-b1 and Ra1-c1 as well.
Now considering the white queen and king had been reversed, certainly 0-0 as legal as Kd1-b1 and Ra1-c1 and 0-0-0 is legal as Kd1-f1 and Rh1-e1. However, the article A4(a) specifies that it is "not allowed" but not necessarily illegal.
Of course I suspect that some arbiters would call any attempt of moving king and rook in a single move as illegal based on A4(a) but I disagree. However when a claim is made of illegal move the player should be instructed to return the castling and play another legal (king) move since castling is not allowed in that game for that player.
Case B
A player had Queen on the board still and promoted a pawn (he had an overwhelming advantage). Unfortunately he then chose to grab an upside-down rook instead of stopping the clock and summon the arbiter to bring a queen. He at the same time shouted out in the playing hall "Queen!" although that did not make it anymore a queen than it already was. The opponent then claimed that the promotion move was an illegal move. But if we check the article 3 nothing was wrong except of the shouting. However, it is clear that it was not a queen, still a rook. I am surprised that it is not specified how pieces or pawns should be placed on the square they stand. Therefore it seems to be immaterial if they are lying down on the side or standing upside down (a knight could for example stand on the ears if the board material is soft and allows to let the ears stick). It says nowhere that this is not allowed, and much less that it is illegal. It appears that promoting to an upside-down turned rook is permitted? The rule 7.3 says that if a player displaces one or more pieces, he must correct them in his own time, but "displaced" is not defined, and I assume it just means the piece left the square it was standing on. But lying down or be turned upside down is apparently not a displacement? The end result was that the rook promotion was deemed a legal move, and the opponent resigned instantly.
I know Bill Gletsoe and Geurt Gijssen are firm critics of the upside-down rook. See for instance geurt99.pdf where he confirms that since July 1, 2005 the upside-down rook is not considered to be a queen (where can I confirm that?). Perhaps the earlier rules than July 1, 2005 explicitly permitted the upside-down rook?
See also
http://www.chesschat.org/showthread....urned#post9410
... about promoting to an upside-down rook and then moving it diagonally ...
Originally Posted by Bill Gletsos
FEN Viewer
Case C
My opponent in the following position made first made the move Qa2xb3+ and while holding queen and pawn in the same hand realized this would not be a good move because of Rd3xb3 and so placed the pawn back on b3 and played Qa2-b1+. I protested and called the arbiter and claimed
an illegal move (wrongly). However, perhaps I did not stop my clock. In any case when the arbiter arrived my flag had fallen, and his time left was 8 seconds. We both explained what had happened and he was also completely
honest about first and second part of his move. Of course at this point he realized that my flag had fallen and claimed that too. When the arbiter arrived, my clock was showing 0.00 but the pause button was not activated (time was still running).
The arbiter correctly rejected it was an illegal move. However he did no attempt to adjust the time in any way. According to 6.13 "If an irregularity
occurs and/or the pieces have to be restored to a previous position, the arbiter shall use his best judgment to determine the times to be shown on the clocks. He shall also, if necessary, adjust the clock's move counter." In this case we had a flag fall but no pause button activated. This means that I might have had say 5 seconds or more when the incident happened, and in the confusion did not stop my clock so it ran out. It is also possible my time had already seized before he played first Qa2xb3+ and then Qa2-b1+. There were no witnesses. But the game was just deemed lost on time for me after confirming that Qa2xb3+ had to be played instead of Qa2-b1+.
In geurt117.pdf Gijssen describes a similar situation, and concludes that the arbiter should use 13.4 (b) increasing the remaining time of the opponent and (c) reducing the remaining time of the offending player. He writes that a combination of (b) and (c) is possible or only (c). The last one would of course have left me without any time to answer Qa2xb3+. However already from 6.13 it would be possible to reinstate time since it is possible that there was probably time on my clock when the incident happened. Guessing how much would almost be impossible though, except it could not be more than 30 seconds since the arbiter arrived pretty quickly.
FEN Viewer
Case D
In a game against Juan Carlos Gonzalez I made two promotions and went on to checkmate with K+Q vs. K. However, in the first promotion I simply played c7-c8 and failed to replace it with a Queen as intended, I just pressed the clock. He immediately played Nd6xc8 and I played Nb6xc8 and got a winning position. However since the pawn was not promoted to anything perhaps the pawn could now never be converted to a Queen (that would be illegal as it can only happen in the promotion move), so he could play Kc6xb6 and therefore get a winning position, or he could simply claim an illegal move. The second promotion some moves later was of course f7-f8Q and the rest of the game went without incidents. Note that Geurt Gijssen considers 1.c7-c8 without converting the pawn to another piece, as an illegal action, not as an illegal move. But I fail to understand how the continuation could be after this illegal action. Can White later change the pawn to a piece?